Ask Dr. Z

Bilateral groin cutdowns (34812-50) were made. Rt CFA accessed and catheter advanced to the ascending aorta, Lt CFA accessed and positioned at L1 (36200-50) Main body deployed (34803, 75952-26). Angiogram done which showed 90% stenosis of rt renal artery. Using lt groin access angiogram obtained and contralateral limb deployed proximal to the bifurcation of CIA. Rt docking limb deployed above bifurcation and limbs were dilated. Post dilation angiogram revealed good flow in stent but proximal aspect was found to have migrated more distal than what was the initial placement. There was concern so Dr elects to proceed with placing a cuff to obtain a more proximal seal. Aortic cuff placed and post dilated (34825, 75953-26). Angiogram shows significant stenosis of Rt CIA. Stent placement done in rt CIA (37221) post dilation angiogram revealed excellent results, but there was impingement of the lt CIA, so Dr placed stent in the lt CIA (37221-59). Post stenting angiogram revealed good results. Does this look correct? The common iliac artery stents have me confused.