Please note this question was answered in 2014. The coding advice may or may not be outdated.
Unsuccessful Coronary Angioplasty
Question:
"The balloon was inflated, but there was no reduction in stenosis. An unsuccessful attempt at balloon angioplasty was performed on the 100% lesion in the mid RCA. Following intervention there was no improvement in angiographic appearance with a 100% residual stenosis. This was an ACC/AHA type C 'high risk' lesion for intervention. The residual lesion demonstrated a large filling defect consistent with thrombus. There was TIMI 0 flow before the procedure and TIMI 0 flow after the procedure. There were no site complications. Balloon angioplasty was performed, using a Trek RX 2x12 balloon, with two inflations and a maximum inflation pressure of 6 ATM. The resulting stenosis was 100%." Would a -52 modifier be applied to the angioplasty? Would code 92920 be reported with a -52 or -53 modifier?
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