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DR Z, This may seem like a simple question but I have a physician that wants to charge a Selective Bilateral Renal Angiogram (36245-50) based on the following Documentation. What do you think? PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Aortic angiogram and bilateral selective renal angiography. INDICATIONS: History of PTA of the renal arteries bilaterally in the past along with resistant hypertension. PROCEDURE: After the patient was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion the left groin was infiltrated with 10 cc of 2% lidocaine. Access into the LSFA was done using 6-French arterial sheath. After images were obtained and hemodynamics were measured, an attempt was made to place a 6-French Angio-Seal. The artery was felt to be too hard and we had a little bit of trouble pushing the Angio-Seal so this was stopped. Manual pressure was applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the cardiac catheterization laboratory without complications. FINDINGS HEMODYNAMICS: AO is 180/80. AORTOGRAM: An aortogram was done in an AP position. Diffuse atherosclerosis was noted. Both renal arteries were seen. LEFT RENAL ARTERY: The left renal artery shows moderate 30-40% proximal stenosis. RIGHT RENAL ARTERY: Right renal artery shows a 20% mild renal artery stenosis. SUMMARY: 1. Mild right renal artery stenosis. 2. Mild to moderate left renal artery stenosis. RECOMMENDATIONS: Medical treatment I only coded this as a non-selective aortogram (36200) and he says there is documentation based on the "Procedure Performed" listing. Please Advise.